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Re: positive exponents
Posted:
May 12, 1995 8:04 PM


Ben Dillon writes: > they wish 1 had not been set up to mean inverse function as well as reciprocal. > And I wonder why as well;
But the "1" for inverse function *IS* an exponent in the group (or at least monoid) of functions (with suitable domain and range) under composition.
in the same way f^2(x) may be interpreted as f(f(x)).
Personally, I think the problem comes from using things like sin^2(x) to mean (sin(x))^2. It would be more consistent to say sin^2(x) = sin(sin(x)).
Ted Alper alper@epgy.stanford.edu



