On 20 Aug 2006 10:28:12 -0700, <firstname.lastname@example.org> wrote in <news:email@example.com> in alt.math.undergrad:
> Yes, all that stuff is great BUT, you missed the point of > my question.
No, I didn't. I wasn't answering your question; I was correcting an error in your response to Paul.
> WHY is it that you can all the sudden decide to make that > replacement. It doesn't seem to be algebraically correct. > WHY, replace 1/(n+1)^2 with the other one. HOW, can you > do that. I understand because it's beneficial but again, > it doesn't seem to be alebraically correct. "what you do > to one side of the equation/inequality, you must do to > the other" ... Thanks
This has nothing to do with my post or Paul's. I realize that you're using that bastard interface at Google groups and not a real newsreader, but it's still possible to keep the subthreads straight if you try.