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Re: Induction proof
Posted:
Aug 20, 2006 2:05 PM
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On 20 Aug 2006 10:28:12 -0700, <emailtgs@gmail.com> wrote in
<news:1156094892.508417.147070@m79g2000cwm.googlegroups.com>
in alt.math.undergrad:
> Yes, all that stuff is great BUT, you missed the point of
> my question.
No, I didn't. I wasn't answering your question; I was
correcting an error in your response to Paul.
> WHY is it that you can all the sudden decide to make that
> replacement. It doesn't seem to be algebraically correct.
> WHY, replace 1/(n+1)^2 with the other one. HOW, can you
> do that. I understand because it's beneficial but again,
> it doesn't seem to be alebraically correct. "what you do
> to one side of the equation/inequality, you must do to
> the other" ... Thanks
This has nothing to do with my post or Paul's. I realize
that you're using that bastard interface at Google groups
and not a real newsreader, but it's still possible to keep
the subthreads straight if you try.
Brian
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