On Oct 28, 3:46 pm, Allastor <kamo...@gmail.com> wrote: > Isn't it easiest to answer problems like this with paradoxes? > But anyhow, if it is infinite, then it is possible for (?-1)>? to be true. > So it is a finite number. But it is the largest finite number possible. Well, either that, or the most unkown finite number possible (depending on whether you consider "infinite" to mean unimaginably large, or simply an unkown variable. But I don't really see the difference between relative infinity, and absolute infinity, so I don't think there's a difference)
Infinity is not a number, so you can't subtract 1 from it. If you are talking about (for instance) the natural numbers as a set, you could remove 1 from that set, and the resulting set will still be infinite. Basically, you should define your terms, because the questions you pose are pretty well meaningless.