On Aug 21, 1:06 am, aatu.koskensi...@xortec.fi wrote:
> Gentzen's proof, on the other hand, is finitistically > meaningful, even though it contains an invocation of a principle, > "quantifier-free transfinite induction up to epsilon-0", that is not > finitistically justified.
Would you say something about the distinction between finitistically meaningful and finitistically justified?
