On 22 Jun., 15:11, "Dik T. Winter" <Dik.Win...@cwi.nl> wrote: > In article <9861b377-6571-4ca1-850a-2d8dd3473...@z5g2000vba.googlegroups.com> WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> writes: > > On 19 Jun., 16:18, "Dik T. Winter" <Dik.Win...@cwi.nl> wrote: > ... > > > > No. I mean exactly that: The set of finite words over a finite > > > > alphabet is countable. > > > > > > Right. > > > > > > > The set of meanings of these words, i.e., the > > > > set of languages, is countable. > > > > > > Is it? I would state that the set of meanings of each of those words can > > > indeed be countable (I do not know), nothing more. > > > > Every meaning of every word is defined by a language. > > Every language is a finite definition. > > The number of finite definitions is countable. > > For each word the meaning can indeed be countable. But that does not mean > that the set of meanings for all the words in a language is countable.
No? How can that be accomplished? > > > > > The set of finite alphabets is > > > > countable. > > > > > > Is it? I would state that a finite alphabet consists of a finite number > > > of disctinct symbols. Now you are actually stating that the number of > > > symbols is countable. > > > > Every symbol is finite and is defined by a finite word. Therefore the > > number of symbols and the number of finite sets of symbols is > > countable. > > I did not know that every symbol is defined by a finite word. Can you show > where I can find that result?
You must scroll down quite a lot. But this margin is too small to note the address.
