On 30 Jun., 16:36, "Dik T. Winter" <Dik.Win...@cwi.nl> wrote: > In article <5c70e8d7-67e1-48e7-8dee-ec3d853bd...@r34g2000vba.googlegroups.com> WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> writes: > > On 22 Jun., 15:11, "Dik T. Winter" <Dik.Win...@cwi.nl> wrote: > ... > > > > Every meaning of every word is defined by a language. > > > > Every language is a finite definition. > > > > The number of finite definitions is countable. > > > > > > For each word the meaning can indeed be countable. But that does not mean > > > that the set of meanings for all the words in a language is countable. > > > > No? How can that be accomplished? > > I think by some negation of the axiom of choice.
I did not ask how to "prove" that. I asked how to *do* it. > Regards, WM
