In article <email@example.com>, WM <firstname.lastname@example.org> wrote:
> On 30 Jun., 16:36, "Dik T. Winter" <Dik.Win...@cwi.nl> wrote: > > In article > > <5c70e8d7-67e1-48e7-8dee-ec3d853bd...@r34g2000vba.googlegroups.com> WM > > <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> writes: > > > On 22 Jun., 15:11, "Dik T. Winter" <Dik.Win...@cwi.nl> wrote: > > ... > > > > > Every meaning of every word is defined by a language. > > > > > Every language is a finite definition. > > > > > The number of finite definitions is countable. > > > > > > > > For each word the meaning can indeed be countable. But that does not > > mean > > > > that the set of meanings for all the words in a language is countable. > > > > > > No? How can that be accomplished? > > > > I think by some negation of the axiom of choice. > > I did not ask how to "prove" that. I asked how to *do* it.
Since WM cannot "do" any proofs of his own claims, he is hardly in a position to demand 'doings" of others.