
Re: Musatov Prime Generalization Conjecture
Posted:
Jun 30, 2009 8:38 PM


On Jun 30, 1:12 am, Musatov <marty.musa...@gmail.com> wrote: > Martin Musatov wrote: > Peter Nilsson wrote: > > Richard Heathfield <r...@see.sig.invalid> wrote: > > > CBFalconer said: > > > > Richard Heathfield wrote: > > > > > MeAmI.org said: > > > > > > RULE: EVERY PRIME number is exactly > > > > > > 1/2 of some other number +1. > > > Every prime is exactly half of +1?! > > > > > > 2 is a counterexample unless "other number" can mean "same > > > > > number". > > > > > Oh? 3 is 'another number'. 3+1 = 4 (usually). 4/2 = 2 (usually). > > > > Division has precedence over addition. Even if it didn't, > > > associativity would be left to right unless specified otherwise. > > > If I have 4 dollars and 20 cents, what is half the dollars and cents? > > > a) $1.20 > > b) $2.10 > > c) $2.20 > > d) $2.40 > > >  > > Peter > > Dear Peter, > > Thank you for your reply. Before I respond to your question, please > allow me a brief moment to clarify my conjecture: > > "Musatov's Prime Generalization Conjecture": Every prime greater than > 2 is 2n+1=P. > > 2*1+1=3 > 2*2+1=5 > ... > 2*20+1=41 > ... > > (1)Is my conjecture provable? > It is trivial in that ANY ODD NUMBER can be written as 2*n+1. Since all primes beyond 2 are odd, this formula tells us nothing about primes. Your conjecture is true but not yours. It is common knowledge.
Ed

