On Jun 15, 9:46 am, stevendaryl3...@yahoo.com (Daryl McCullough) wrote: > WM says... > > > > >On 15 Jun., 16:32, stevendaryl3...@yahoo.com (Daryl McCullough) wrote: > >> The proof does not make use of any property of infinite lists. > >> The proof establishes: (If r_n is the list of reals, and > >> d is the antidiagonal) > > >> forall n, d is not equal to r_n > > >As every n is finite, it belongs to a finite initial segment of the > >infinite list. > > I'm not sure what you are saying. The fact is, we can prove > that for every real r_n on the list, d is not equal to r_n. > That means that d is not on the list.
How do you know that it does not prove that an anti-diagonal does exist i.e. that an antidiagonal is a contradiction in terms?
