
Re: dirac delta function is not a TRUE function??
Posted:
Jul 18, 2011 7:12 PM


In article <j01rvc$o76$1@dontemail.me>, mstemper@walkabout.empros.com (Michael Stemper) wrote:
> In article <gerryE6603D.09354915072011@news.eternalseptember.org>, Gerry > Myerson <gerry@maths.mq.edi.ai.i2u4email> writes: > > > >You could try to think of delta as a function > >from the reals to the extended reals, the extended > >reals being "the reals union infinity", but that > >won't help you to understand why > >integral from minus infinity to infinity of f(x) delta(x) dx > >is f(0). > > It's been a long time since I studied this, but isn't that true for > the integral from minus epsilon to epsilon (for any positive epsilon), > as well?
Yes.
 Gerry Myerson (gerry@maths.mq.edi.ai) (i > u for email)

