quasi
Posts:
9,078
Registered:
7/15/05
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Re: a contradiction worth reading (unless a silly mistake was made)
Posted:
Jul 20, 2011 4:48 AM
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On Wed, 20 Jul 2011 03:31:15 -0500, quasi <quasi@null.set> wrote:
>Simon Roberts initially claimed: > >>there exists an i: 1<i<=(n-3)/2 when n is prime and (n-1)/2 >>is odd such that x^(2^i)=x^2 (mod n) > >As I noted in a previous reply, the above is false, however >as Simon Roberts noted in a later reply, the counterexample >I provided is avoided if the expression (n-3)/2 above is >replaced with (n-1)/2. > >In fact, Simon Roberts' revised claim is true. > >Here's a version of the revised claim, with proof ... > >Proposition: > >Let p be prime with p > 3 and p = 3 (mod 4), and let x >be an integer which is not a multiple of p. Then > > x^(2^e) = x^2 (mod p) > >for some integer e with phi(w) < e <= w, where w = (p-1)/2. > >proof: > >Fix an integer x which is not a multiple of p. Let w = (p-1)/2. > > p = 3 (mod 4) => w is odd => gcd(2,w) = 1. > >By Fermat's Little Theorem, 2^(phi(w)) = 1 (mod w), hence > > 2^((phi(w) + 1) = 2 (mod (p-1)). > >Letting e = phi(w) + 1, we get > > 2^e = 2 (mod (p-1)). > >Then e = phi(w) + 1 => phi(w) < e <= w. > >Again by Fermat's Little Theorem > > 2^e = 2 (mod (p-1)) => x^(2^e) = x^2 (mod p), > >which completes the proof.
Actually, the statement of the claim can be improved.
Proposition:
If p is prime with p = 3 (mod 4), then for all integers x,
x^(2^e) = x^2 (mod p)
where e = phi((p-1)/2) + 1.
proof: Same as my previous proof.
quasi
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