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Re: Derivation of limit of infinite quotient
Posted:
Aug 22, 2012 10:23 AM
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On Wednesday, August 22, 2012 2:42:18 PM UTC+3, Brad Cooper wrote:
> If
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> f(n) = product(x^2-k^2*PI^2, k=1..n) and
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> g(n) = product(x^2+k^2*PI^2, k=1..n)
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> then limit n -> infinity of f(n)/g(n) = sin(x)/sinh(x)
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> I am looking for a derivation and/or a proof of this.
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> Could someone please give a pointer to where I can get started on this?
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> Regards :-)
Only of thinking in writing this stuff here without LaTeX or any other (which one?!) thing that'll make mathematics appear decently makes me sick. You should use stackexchange - mathematics to ask this question, or at the very least physicsforums.com
Tonio
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