dilettante wrote: > > [...] I suppose it isn't known whether positing the > existence of the power set of the reals leads to a contradiction. Surely > also taking the existence of this set as an axiom doesn't do anything to > resolve CH (of course, as far as anyone knows - if it leads to a > contradiction it resolves everything, in a sense)? (Yes, that's a question)
It is known that if the axioms of set theory are consistent then they remain so with the addition of either CH (or even GCH) or not-CH.
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