You are the one who brought up the date 1950, making the claim that there has been no reduction in the gaps in question since 1950. You said this:
"Educators cannot fix the real issues, whatever they may be, therefore, if they reduce the gap, they must have reduced the challenge. If I made this statement in 1950, it would be a conjecture, but making it now with the overwhelming abundance of data in front of us, it is a fact. An unfortunate fact, but still a fact."
Here was some of my reply:
"It is not a fact. It is a false claim and even a lie and even a racist lie if one making the claim knows the truth, which is that by many measures, the performance gap between whites on the one hand and blacks and Hispanics on the other has closed to a significantly significant extent over the long-term, over the past half century.
And please do not make any anti-mathematics and anti-science claims like long-term decreasing trends count as such only if they are strictly decreasing or monotonically decreasing. There can be temporary periods over the long-term where there will not be closings of the gaps - during such periods one should even expect to see increases in the gaps. I repeat: This is about long-term trends, and every attempt to say otherwise is not in line with what is at issue.
I therefore again am compelled to ask you this question: Do you believe that blacks and Hispanics are genetically less capable than whites in terms of academic capability? Yes or no.
If no, then why do you promote this white supremacist agenda that society should just give up on blacks and Hispanics, and why do you echo the white supremacist claim that any attempt to close the gaps must cause harm to whites?"
I point out that I have demonstrated many times in other threads that there has been significantly significant reduction of the gaps in question over the long term, starting in the 1970s or before, whether the measure is high school graduation rates even while the minimum requirements for graduation have increased significantly, or whether it is NAEP scores, or whether it is a number of other measures.
You are the one with your given date of 1950 who very clearly made the implicit claim that is false that even over the long-term there has been no statistically significant reduction in the gap. You keep making the proved false claim that there can never be any statistically significant reduction in the gaps in question. Why do you keep arguing in a way that promotes the racist idea found in the white supremacist literature that there *cannot* be any statistically significant reduction in the gaps in question because of the genetic inferiority of blacks and Hispanics in terms of academic capability?
I therefore reiterate everything I said in my prior post in this thread
and ask this: Why do you keep dumping on trying to help blacks and Hispanics while not dumping on trying to help whites? Is the answer to be found in your ongoing promotion of the racist idea found in the white supremacist literature that the public schools are trying to improve black and Hispanic performance but not trying to white performance?