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Topic: [ap-calculus] point of inflection question
Replies: 2   Last Post: Sep 26, 2012 5:13 PM

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Dixie Ross

Posts: 686
Registered: 9/29/06
RE: [ap-calculus] point of inflection question
Posted: Sep 26, 2012 8:46 AM
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I disagree. A critical point, according to everything I have ever seen and read, is a point on the function at which the derivative equals zero or fails to exist.

dixie

-----Original Message-----
From: Earley, Ned [mailto:Earley.Ned@lebanon.k12.oh.us]
Sent: Tuesday, September 25, 2012 6:28 AM
To: AP Calculus
Subject: RE: [ap-calculus] point of inflection question

NOTE:
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and post messages there.
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You can have a "critical point" without having a point.

Ned Earley


-----Original Message-----
From: Ed Eblin [mailto:ap.calculus.ecc@gmail.com]
Sent: Sunday, September 23, 2012 11:54 PM
To: AP Calculus
Cc: AP Calculus
Subject: Re: [ap-calculus] point of inflection question

NOTE:
This ap-calculus EDG will be closing in the next few weeks. Please sign up for the new AP Calculus Teacher Community Forum at https://apcommunity.collegeboard.org/getting-started
and post messages there.
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
How can you have a POINT of inflection where no POINT exists?

Sent from my iPad.

On Sep 23, 2012, at 10:41 AM, "Brett Baltz" <brettbaltz@msdlt.k12.in.us> wrote:

> NOTE:
> This ap-calculus EDG will be closing in the next few weeks. Please
> sign up for the new AP Calculus Teacher Community Forum at
> https://apcommunity.collegeboard.org/getting-started
> and post messages there.
> ----------------------------------------------------------------------
> -------------------------- I find conflicting reports on this, which
> leads me to believe there may be conflicting opinions or varying explanations among textbooks. For that reason, I assume this question would not be addressed in this way on the exam.
>
> Can a point of inflection be identified where the function has a vertical asymptote just because the concavity changes? For example does y=1/x have a point of inflection at x=0? My belief is that a point of inflection cannot exist at a point where the function is not defined or even not differentiable.
>
> The debate in my head has carried over into the classroom.
>
> Thanks!
> ---
> To search the list archives for previous posts go to
> http://lyris.collegeboard.com/read/?forum=ap-calculus


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