
Re: If ZFC is a FORMAL THEORY ... then what is THEOREM 1 ?
Posted:
Oct 8, 2012 7:30 PM


On Oct 9, 6:54 am, George Greene <gree...@email.unc.edu> wrote: > On Oct 7, 5:48 pm, Graham Cooper <grahamcoop...@gmail.com> wrote: > > > YOU SAID THE SET OF TRUTHS > > ARE 'AUTOMATIC' AND NOT POSSIBLE TO DERIVE > > FROM AN ALGORITHM. > > I *did*not*say* that, DUMBASS.
8<
[HERC] IF FOLtheorem(S) THEN ZFCtheorem(S) is not algorithmic.
[GEORGE] > It's MUCH BETTER than algorithmic, dumbass, it's AUTOMATIC. > It's automatic BECAUSE classical logic IS MONOTONIC. > It's automatic because (P>Q) > ((P&R)>Q) > IS A TAUTOLOGY. > When we SAY that something is a theorem of pure/plain FOL, > what we MEAN is that we can derive it, using THE INFERENCE RULES
8<
So where are all these "automatic" theorems coming from if they are not "algorithmic" in derivation.
Is there a Transitive Closure on Inference for all true Predicates derived from P. Calculus?
What do you need ZFC for if Predicate Calculus _CALCULATES_
~E(R) XeR <> ~(XeX)
Axiom Of SEPARATION deals with this already!
Herc

