> > I see no reason to suppose that the expression is well enough defined to > have anything like a unique limit. > If it is expressible as the limit of a sequence at all, then show us > the terms of such a sequence.- Zitierten Text ausblenden -
Here you are: > > 01. > > 0.1 > > 010.1 > > 01.01 > > 0101.01 > > 010.101 > > 01010.101 > > 0101.0101 > > ... Is this in fact more difficult to grasp than, say, the Conway sequence? Should I be proud for that reason?