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Topic: Matheology § 166
Replies: 2   Last Post: Nov 30, 2012 8:56 PM

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Scott Berg

Posts: 1,456
Registered: 12/12/04
Re: Matheology � 166
Posted: Nov 30, 2012 8:56 PM
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"WM" <mueckenh@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote in message
news:4ba4d56a-60bb-48fe-9332-7f6d8d51df6e@a15g2000vbf.googlegroups.com...
>
> The fact that some discrete items might lack a determinate number,
> this being connected with the possibility of them being given as a
> complete whole, was, of course, the traditional, Aristotelian point of
> view, which Intuitionists, more recently, have still held to. But many
> others now doubt this fact. Is there any way to show that Aristotle
> was right? I believe there is.


huh ?


>
> For when discrete items do clearly collect into a further individual,
> and we have a finite set, then we determine the number in that set by
> counting. But what process will determine what the number is, in any
> other case?


by counting, or not counting, which do you think ?


> The newly revealed independence of the Continuum
> Hypothesis shows there is no way to determine the number in certain
> well known infinite sets. [...]


if it was infinite, than you could not determine the number, right ?


>The key question therefore is: if
> there is a determinate number of natural numbers, then by what process
> is it determined?


you have cart before horse.


> Replacing 'the number of natural numbers' with
> 'Aleph zero' does not make its reference any more determinate.


no, Aleph wont like that.


> The
> natural numbers can be put into one-one correspondence with the even
> numbers, it is well known, but does that settle that they have the
> same number?


what do you mean by "settle" ?



<snippith crappith>





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