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Re: Matheology � 166
Posted:
Nov 30, 2012 8:56 PM


"WM" <mueckenh@rz.fhaugsburg.de> wrote in message news:4ba4d56a60bb48fe93327f6d8d51df6e@a15g2000vbf.googlegroups.com... > > The fact that some discrete items might lack a determinate number, > this being connected with the possibility of them being given as a > complete whole, was, of course, the traditional, Aristotelian point of > view, which Intuitionists, more recently, have still held to. But many > others now doubt this fact. Is there any way to show that Aristotle > was right? I believe there is.
huh ?
> > For when discrete items do clearly collect into a further individual, > and we have a finite set, then we determine the number in that set by > counting. But what process will determine what the number is, in any > other case?
by counting, or not counting, which do you think ?
> The newly revealed independence of the Continuum > Hypothesis shows there is no way to determine the number in certain > well known infinite sets. [...]
if it was infinite, than you could not determine the number, right ?
>The key question therefore is: if > there is a determinate number of natural numbers, then by what process > is it determined?
you have cart before horse.
> Replacing 'the number of natural numbers' with > 'Aleph zero' does not make its reference any more determinate.
no, Aleph wont like that.
> The > natural numbers can be put into oneone correspondence with the even > numbers, it is well known, but does that settle that they have the > same number?
what do you mean by "settle" ?
<snippith crappith>



