On 21 Dez., 17:34, Zuhair <zaljo...@gmail.com> wrote:
> > I am not interested in the question whether it is definable, but I > > know that this bijection can be proved. > > It is not a matter of what you are interested in. I asked a simple > question, and the answer to it is either YES or NO, or if you don't > know then just say that you don't. > > The question is: > > Is the bijection between the set of all finite words and the set of > all naturals definable in a parameter free manner or not?
Of course it is. You just defined it. Otherwise we could not talk about it. > > A simple question that demands a simple answer: YES or NO?
Yes it is definable. It has been defined. Nevertheless it does not exist, because the sets do not exist.