> Did anyone say anything about wishing sets of equal cardinality all to > have the same probability?
The subject line says "uniform distributions". What can that mean OTHER than "sets of equal cardinality have equal measure"?
> Is that what the OP was talking about? I > didn't try to read his post, as it seemed kind of obscure. Of course > it's not possible, in an infinite sample space, for sets of the same > cardinality all to have the same probability.
> (I'm assuming the axiom > of choice, so I don't have to worry about Dedekind-finite infinite > sets.) >