On 4 Jan., 22:38, Virgil <vir...@ligriv.com> wrote:
> According to standard mathematics, a set is "countable" if and only if > there is surjection from N to that set.
If and only if? Do you agree that a subset of a countable set is countable?
The set of all finite definitions is countable. The set of all finitely defined reals cannot be put in bijection with | N, but it is a subset of all finite definitions, isn't it?
