Virgil
Posts:
4,482
Registered:
1/6/11
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Re: The Distinguishability argument of the Reals.
Posted:
Jan 6, 2013 2:55 PM
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In article
<1038fe29-f169-4511-bd13-c7ade7fd1bae@pd8g2000pbc.googlegroups.com>,
"Ross A. Finlayson" <ross.finlayson@gmail.com> wrote:
> > lim_(d -> oo) f(n,d) = 0 for every n in N
> > --
>
>
> No
If, as Ross defined it, f(n,d) = n/d for all d in N and all n in
{0,1,2,...,d}, then for any n, lim_(d -> oo) f(n,d) = 0
And no amount of denial by Ross will alter that fact.
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