Virgil
Posts:
4,491
Registered:
1/6/11
|
|
Re: The Distinguishability argument of the Reals.
Posted:
Jan 6, 2013 10:18 PM
|
|
In article
<c0440244-4535-4b3f-8e2d-52e086b7cad6@lb9g2000pbb.googlegroups.com>,
"Ross A. Finlayson" <ross.finlayson@gmail.com> wrote:
> > For each value of d, the range is a finite subset of d+1 values in [0,1].
> > You may properly may say that the codomain for each d is [0,1], but the
> > range is the set of values values actual taken by the function, and for
> > each value of d the range is a set of d+1 values, not an interval.
> >
> > Wrong again, Ross!
> > --
>
>
> Ah, that's (partly) fair
That's totally fair.
Garbage snipped.
--
|
|
