Virgil
Posts:
6,613
Registered:
1/6/11
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Re: The Distinguishability argument of the Reals.
Posted:
Jan 7, 2013 12:58 AM
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In article
<f526112a-ff48-4b3a-9276-d38189848a5e@y5g2000pbi.googlegroups.com>,
"Ross A. Finlayson" <ross.finlayson@gmail.com> wrote:
> On Jan 6, 7:18 pm, Virgil <vir...@ligriv.com> wrote:
> > In article
> > <c0440244-4535-4b3f-8e2d-52e086b7c...@lb9g2000pbb.googlegroups.com>,
> > "Ross A. Finlayson" <ross.finlay...@gmail.com> wrote:
> >
> > > > For each value of d, the range is a finite subset of d+1 values in
> > > > [0,1].
> > > > You may properly may say that the codomain for each d is [0,1], but the
> > > > range is the set of values values actual taken by the function, and for
> > > > each value of d the range is a set of d+1 values, not an interval.
> >
> > > > Wrong again, Ross!
> > > > --
> >
> > > Ah, that's (partly) fair
> >
> > That's totally fair.
> >
> > Garbage snipped.
> > --
>
>
> Meh.
Garbage again snipped.
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