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how do we get the neutrino as magnetic monopoles #1216 New Physics #1336 ATOM TOTALITY 5th ed
Posted:
Feb 11, 2013 12:42 AM


How do we get a neutrino as a magnetic monopoles? Sounds both strange and impossible. But let us give it full attention.
When physicists learn something, they often miss items that are important. Take for instance the Faraday law and the Ampere law. We all learn the basics. We learn a current flowing yields a magnetic field around the wire. We learn that a moving bar magnet creates a electric field and a current flowing.
But do we miss something? Of course, we never really pay attention to the positive charge of protons, for we focus our attention only on electrons.
So, I have a problem here. I need to see if a neutrino is a magnetic monopole, perhaps several magnetic monopoles.
Now a magnetic field in Maxwell Equations is a dipole field, so overall it is a neutral magnetic field. But a monopole is not neutral. A electron is not neutral unless we include the proton in an electric current.
So, in the Maxwell Equations we have a current flowing of electrons but we also have a proton electric field to balance out the electron electric field.
In the magnetic field, there is both poles, a dipole that overall it is neutral. And in the electric field, the negative charges balance with the positive to overall neutral.
Now, let us tackle the neutrino as a magnetic monopole. It is not one magnetic monopole but several magnetic monopoles so that overall, the neutrino is a neutral electric charge and a neutral magnetic charge.
So we picture the neutrino as a longitudinal wave, and we picture it as the flow of magnetic monopoles, just as the electric field an electric current in flow comprising electrons and protons.
Now Dirac in his Directions in Physics book talks about how large the magnetic monopole is. On page 46, Dirac gets a number value of (137/2)e value for the magnetic monopole.
I am somewhat, not certain, that Dirac made a mistake in logic in that calculation. Using the Schrodinger Equation is one mistake but a larger mistake is that in likelihood, Dirac had it turned around. In other words, the electric charge is equal to 137/2M for M being a magnetic monopole. I feel Dirac had it turned around backwards, that it takes 68.5 magnetic monopoles to be on par with just 1 electric charge. Whereas Dirac was thinking that it takes 68.5 electric charges to be on par with just 1 magnetic monopole.
Now, do yourself a simple everyday experience test. If we pick up static electricity, just a little bit of it our bodies immediately feel the impact. But, if we encounter the strongest magnets, we never really feel any impact, no matter how strong those magnets are. Our everyday experience would counterclaim Dirac's 137/2(e) and support the other claim of 137/2M.
So, what I am after here, is to describe a neutrino as a magnetic monopoles. And what I am coming to a picture of is that a neutrino is a magnetic current composed of monopoles of a minimum amount of monopoles of 68.5 monopoles. Now since the neutrino is overall neutral means the magnetic monopoles have to be 70 at a minimum and 35 of them have to be north pole while the other 35 have to be south pole.

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Archimedes Plutonium http://www.iw.net/~a_plutonium whole entire Universe is just one big atom where dots of the electrondotcloud are galaxies



