> In Aristotle, one finds the discussion that one can > never define x=y. To be precise, he says that one > can never prove a definition, but one can destroy > a definition. But, definitions rely on the notion > that some word is "the same" as the object toward > which its language act of referring is directed.
What part of Aristotle do you have in mind?
I'm not challenging you. I know only a smidgen of his writings. But I'd appreciate a pointer to the chapter where he discusses this.
-- Jesse F. Hughes
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