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Topic: Deriving the idea that all magnetic monopoles are attractive force
#1237 New Physics #1357 ATOM TOTALITY 5th ed

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plutonium.archimedes@gmail.com

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Deriving the idea that all magnetic monopoles are attractive force
#1237 New Physics #1357 ATOM TOTALITY 5th ed

Posted: Feb 17, 2013 4:29 PM
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Deriving the idea that the magnetic monopoles are all attractive
force, not repulsion

Alright many posts ago I wrote how the Maxwell Equations, the
symmetrical Maxwell Equations when summed together produce both the
Schrodinger and Dirac Equations as subsets, minor subsets of the
Maxwell Equations. But today I want to tease out of the Maxwell
Equations the idea that all magnetic monopoles are attractive force.
This means that no matter whether you have north to north, north to
south, south to north or south to south magnetic monopoles that all
four possibilities is always an attraction force and never a repelling
force.

So let me see if I can derive that idea. And I would hazard to say
that I believe no physicist of today, other than myself is capable of
doing this task, but that hundreds of mathematicians are capable of
doing this task. Physicists of the last 100 years were so bad in
mathematics that only 2 physicists could venture to use mathematics
into physics, Schrodinger and Dirac and we see now that even their
attempts come up as minor subsets of the true physics. For in the
total summation of the Symmetrical Maxwell Equations, we get not only
the Dirac Equation as a minor subset, but we get so much much more.
From the Dirac Equation we could not get the fact that magnetic
monopoles are all attractive regardless of what pole they are, whether
north or south. But in the summation of Maxwell Equations we can
derive that idea as I spell out below.

Alright, these are the 4 symmetrical Maxwell Equations with magnetic
monopoles:
div*E = r_E ?div*B = r_B ?- curlxE = dB + J_B ?curlxB = dE + J_E
Now to derive the Dirac Equation from the Maxwell Equations we add
the ?lot together:
div*E = r_E ?div*B = r_B ?- curlxE = dB + J_B ?curlxB = dE + J_E
________________
div*E + div*B + (-1)curlxE + curlxB = r_E + r_B + dB + dE + J_E + J_B
Now Wikipedia has a good description of how Dirac derived his famous
equation which gives this:
(Ad_x + Bd_y + Cd_z + (i/c)Dd_t - mc/h) p = 0
So how is the above summation of Maxwell Equations that of a
generalized Dirac Equation?
Well, the four terms of div and curl are the A,B,C,D terms. And the
right side of the equation can all be ?conglomerated into one term and
the negative sign in the Faraday law ?can turn that right side into
the negative sign.
Alright the Schrodinger Eq. is easily derived from the Maxwell
Equations. In the Dirac Equation we need more than one of the Maxwell
Equations because it is a 4x4 matrix equation and so the full 4
Maxwell Equations are needed to cover the Dirac Equation, although
the
Dirac Equation ends up being a minor subset of the 4 Maxwell
Equations, because the Dirac Equation does not allow the photon to be
a double transverse wave while the Summation of the Maxwell Equations
demands the photon be a double transverse wave.
But the Schrodinger Equation:
ihd(f(w)) = Hf(w) where f(w) is the wave function
The Schrodinger Equation is easily derived from the mere Gauss's laws
combined:
These are the 4 symmetrical Maxwell Equations with magnetic
monopoles:
div*E = r_E
div*B = r_B
- curlxE = dB + J_B
curlxB = dE + J_E
Now the two Gauss's law of Maxwell Equations standing alone are
nonrelativistic and so is the Schrodinger Equation.
div*E = r_E ?div*B = r_B ?____________ ?div*E + div*B = r_E + r_B
this is reduced to ?k(d(f(x))) = H(f(x))
Now Schrodinger derived his equation out of thin air, using the
Fick's ?law of diffusion. So Schrodinger never really used the
Maxwell ?Equations. The Maxwell Equations were foreign to Schrodinger
and to ?all the physicists of the 20th century when it came time to
find the ?wave function. But how easy it would have been for
Schrodinger if he ?instead, reasoned that the Maxwell Equations
derives all of Physics, ?and that he should only focus on the Maxwell
Equations. Because if he ?had reasoned that the Maxwell Equations were
the axiom set of all of ?physics and then derived the Schrodinger
Equation from the two Gauss ?laws, he would and could have further
reasoned that if you Summation ?all 4 Maxwell Equations, that
Schrodinger would then have derived the ?relativistic wave equation
and thus have found the Dirac Equation long ?before Dirac ever had the
idea of finding a relativistic wave ?equation.
Now, how is it that we derive all monopoles are attractive regardless
of polarity from the Summation of Maxwell Equations? I need
mathematicians to verify my claim. And I think the physicists of today
are too dumb to be able to proceed in this.

I roughly figure that if you had a repulsion or repelling in the
polarity of magnetic monopoles that you would have to introduce
another negative term in the Summation whereas the summation as it
stands now has only one negative term in the Faraday law component. If
magnetic monopoles had repulsion then the magnetic current density and
the Gauss's law of magnetism would also require negative terms. But if
all monopoles had one polarity, had only attraction force, then no
need to have negative terms in the Maxwell Equation other than the
Faraday law negative term.

Again, I need competent mathematicians to verify for my opinion is
that no physicist of today is competent enough. Of course, if Dirac
were still alive and in prime, would be the best qualified of all. I
dare say, if Feynman were alive, he too would be competent enough. But
sadly, both are gone and the physicists remaining are not worth the
asking.

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