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Topic: when indecomposability is decomposable
Replies: 4   Last Post: Feb 21, 2013 8:51 PM

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Shmuel (Seymour J.) Metz

Posts: 3,329
Registered: 12/4/04
Re: when indecomposability is decomposable
Posted: Feb 17, 2013 11:03 AM
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In <88qdnU1ZNsB9j4LMnZ2dnUVZ_uudnZ2d@giganews.com>, on 02/15/2013
at 11:02 PM, fom <fomJUNK@nyms.net> said:

>When one invokes the axiom,

>Ax(x=x)

>by

>a=a

>there is an ontological interpretation of the
>sign of equality corresponding with the sense
>of indecomposability.


I don't see how it is either omtological or indecomposable. The
inference is valid regardless of how you model "=".

>Of course, mathematicians generally do not know
>of description theory.


Is that true? I'd buy the claim that for most mathematicians it is not
relevant to their sphere of interest.

>That is, when one presupposes
>the ontological interpretation that gives
>rise to the necessity of
>|- (x=y -> Az(zex <-> zey))


Isn't that a special case of a more general axiom schema? For any
propositional function P of two variables, |- (x=y -> Az(P)z,x) >->
P(z,y))

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