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Topic: if magnetic monopoles were both attractive and repelling you then
destroy Lenz's law #1239 New Physics #1359 ATOM TOTALITY 5th ed

Replies: 1   Last Post: Feb 19, 2013 3:18 AM

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Posts: 18,572
Registered: 3/31/08
if magnetic monopoles were both attractive and repelling you then
destroy Lenz's law #1239 New Physics #1359 ATOM TOTALITY 5th ed

Posted: Feb 18, 2013 3:58 PM
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Deriving the idea that the magnetic monopoles are all attractive
force, not repulsion. Magnetic monopoles must all be a positive term
in the Maxwell Equations. If you had magnetic monopoles in the
Symmetrical Maxwell Equations then you destroy the Lenz's law of the
negative term in the Faraday law. You destroy Lenz's law because you
would have extra negative terms in the summation of the Maxwell

Alright many posts ago I wrote how the Maxwell Equations, the
symmetrical Maxwell Equations when summed together produce both the
Schrodinger and Dirac Equations as subsets, minor subsets of the
Maxwell Equations. But today I want to tease out of the Maxwell
Equations the idea that all magnetic monopoles are attractive force.
This means that no matter whether you have north to north, north to
south, south to north or south to south magnetic monopoles that all
four possibilities is always an attraction force and never a repelling
So let me see if I can derive that idea. And I would hazard to say
that I believe no physicist of today, other than myself is capable of
doing this task, but that hundreds of mathematicians are capable of
doing this task. Physicists of the last 100 years were so bad in
mathematics that only 2 physicists could venture to use mathematics
into physics, Schrodinger and Dirac and we see now that even their
attempts come up as minor subsets of the true physics. For in the
total summation of the Symmetrical Maxwell Equations, we get not only
the Dirac Equation as a minor subset, but we get so much much more.
From the Dirac Equation we could not get the fact that magnetic
monopoles are all attractive regardless of what pole they are, whether
north or south. But in the summation of Maxwell Equations we can
derive that idea as I spell out below.
Alright, these are the 4 symmetrical Maxwell Equations with magnetic

div*E = r_E

div*B = r_B

- curlxE = dB + J_B

curlxB = dE + J_E

Now to derive the Dirac Equation from the Maxwell Equations we add the
lot together:

div*E = r_E

div*B = r_B

- curlxE = dB + J_B

curlxB = dE + J_E


div*E + div*B + (-1)curlxE + curlxB = r_E + r_B + dB + dE + J_E + J_B

Now Wikipedia has a good description of how Dirac derived his famous
equation which gives this:

(Ad_x + Bd_y + Cd_z + (i/c)Dd_t - mc/h) p = 0

So how is the above summation of Maxwell Equations that of a
generalized Dirac Equation? Well, the four terms of div and curl are
the A,B,C,D terms. And the right side of the equation can all be
conglomerated into one term and ?the negative sign in the Faraday law
can turn that right side into ?the negative sign. Alright the
Schrodinger Eq. is easily derived from the Maxwell Equations. In the
Dirac Equation we need more than one of the Maxwell ?Equations because
it is a 4x4 matrix equation and so the full 4 Maxwell Equations are
needed to cover the Dirac Equation, although ?the?Dirac Equation ends
up being a minor subset of the 4 Maxwell ?Equations, because the Dirac
Equation does not allow the photon to be a double transverse wave
while the Summation of the Maxwell Equations demands the photon be a
double transverse wave. But the Schrodinger Equation:

ihd(f(w)) = Hf(w) where f(w) is the wave function

The Schrodinger Equation is easily derived from the mere Gauss's laws
combined: ?These are the 4 symmetrical Maxwell Equations with magnetic

div*E = r_E

div*B = r_B

- curlxE = dB + J_B

curlxB = dE + J_E

Now the two Gauss's law of Maxwell Equations standing alone are
nonrelativistic and so is the Schrodinger Equation.

div*E = r_E

div*B = r_B

div*E + div*B = r_E + r_B

this is reduced to

k(d(f(x))) = H(f(x))

Now Schrodinger derived his equation out of thin air, using the?Fick's
law of diffusion. So Schrodinger never really used the Maxwell
Equations. The Maxwell Equations were foreign to Schrodinger and to
all the physicists of the 20th century when it came time to find the
wave function. But how easy it would have been for?Schrodinger if he
instead, reasoned that the Maxwell Equations derives all of Physics,
and that he should only focus on the Maxwell Equations. Because if he
had reasoned that the Maxwell Equations were?the axiom set of all of
physics and then derived the Schrodinger Equation from the two Gauss
laws, he would and could have further reasoned that if you Summation
all 4 Maxwell Equations, that Schrodinger would then have derived the
relativistic wave equation ?and thus have found the Dirac Equation
long before Dirac ever had the ?idea of finding a relativistic wave
equation. ?Now, how is it that we derive all monopoles are attractive
regardless of polarity from the Summation of Maxwell Equations? I
need ?mathematicians to verify my claim. And I think the physicists of
today are too dumb to be able to proceed in this.
I roughly figure that if you had a repulsion or repelling in the
polarity of magnetic monopoles that you would have to introduce
another negative term in the Summation whereas the summation as it
stands now has only one negative term in the Faraday law component. If
magnetic monopoles had repulsion then the magnetic current density and
the Gauss's law of magnetism would also require negative terms. But
if ?all monopoles had one polarity, had only attraction force, then no
need to have negative terms in the Maxwell Equation other than the
Faraday law negative term.
Again, I need competent mathematicians to verify for my opinion is
that no physicist of today is competent enough. Of course, if Dirac
were still alive and in prime, would be the best qualified of all. I
dare say, if Feynman were alive, he too would be competent enough.
But ?sadly, both are gone and the physicists remaining are not worth
the ?asking.


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