On Feb 21, 6:40 pm, WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote: > On 21 Feb., 14:18, William Hughes <wpihug...@gmail.com> wrote: > > > According to WM > > > i.; > > > A) For every natural number n, P(n) is true. > > implies > > that this claim A holds for every natural number from 1 to n, but not > necessarily for infinitely many following. > > > B) There does not exist a natural number n such that P(n) is > > false. > > In potential infinity you have to distinguish between existence and > the possibility to identify. > Every potentially infinite set of natural numbers has a last element. > But you cannot identify it.
I do not understand. You made the claim that A implies B. Now you seem to be arguing against this. Note that the statement in B is that the natural number n does not exist, not that the natural number n cannot be identified. I remind you again that the words are yours.
