On 23/02/2013 2:58 PM, WM wrote: > On 23 Feb., 22:48, Nam Nguyen <namducngu...@shaw.ca> wrote: >> On 23/02/2013 2:38 PM, Virgil wrote: >> >>> In article >>> <f3b2ce4b-c9ec-447f-92b4-47a07a2e2...@5g2000yqz.googlegroups.com>, >>> WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote: >> >>> In mathematics [...] proofs of existence do >>> not always require that one find an example of the thing claimed to >>> exist. >> >> So, how would one prove the existence of the infinite set of >> counter examples of Goldbach Conjecture, given that it does not >> "not [...] require that one find an example" of such existences? > > It there was a logical necessity of a counter example, this necessity > was the proof.
Would you be able to verify what _exactly_ you'd mean by "logical necessity" of the existence of a counter example of the Conjecture?
> However, I don't see a necessity in this case. So I > have no proof.
A lot of people would have no proof of such an existence. What would make your case logically distinct from their cases?
-- ---------------------------------------------------- There is no remainder in the mathematics of infinity.