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Re: Orthogonal complement
Posted:
Mar 4, 2013 8:34 AM
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On Sun, 03 Mar 2013 20:16:52 -0500, Shmuel (Seymour J.) Metz <spamtrap@library.lspace.org.invalid> wrote:
>In <9s07j89ui5l98kpkfnmv1l2oq5ocdt14tg@4ax.com>, on 03/03/2013 > at 11:11 AM, David C. Ullrich <ullrich@math.okstate.edu> said: > >>Maybe the "+" was supposed to mean _direct_ sum? It seems likely >>that it's easy to show that f is non-degenerate if and only if S >>intersect C(S) = 0 for all S. > >Let f be a Lorentz metric, s nonzero with f(s,s)=0 and S = {s}. Then S >intersect C(S) is nonnull.
The two of us are evidently interpreting the word "non-degenerate" differently. I was just sort of guessing what that meant...
Hmm. According to the definition at
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bilinear_form
your f is _not_ non-degenerate. In the notation used there we have f_1(s)(s) = 0, hence f_1 is not an isomorphism.
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