On Tuesday, March 5, 2013 10:32:38 PM UTC+2, AMeiwes wrote: > "Paul" <firstname.lastname@example.org> wrote in message > > news:email@example.com... > > >I suspect there's a theorem about entire complex functions f which have the > > >property that the absolute value of f(z) tends to infinity as the absolute > > >value >of z tends to infinity. What does this theorem say? I don't know > > >of any such functions besides polynomials of degree >= 1. Is it the case > > >that the set >of functions which have this property is just the set of > > >polynomials of degree >= 1. Thank you. > > > > > >Paul Epstein > > > > > > f(z) = 1/z ?