On 05/03/2013 20:32, AMeiwes wrote: > "Paul" <firstname.lastname@example.org> wrote in message > news:email@example.com... >> I suspect there's a theorem about entire complex functions f which have the >> property that the absolute value of f(z) tends to infinity as the absolute >> value >of z tends to infinity. What does this theorem say? I don't know >> of any such functions besides polynomials of degree >= 1. Is it the case >> that the set >of functions which have this property is just the set of >> polynomials of degree >= 1. Thank you. >> >> Paul Epstein > > > f(z) = 1/z ?