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Topic: Probabilities not in [0,1]?
Replies: 8   Last Post: Mar 12, 2013 10:56 PM

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Virgil

Posts: 9,012
Registered: 1/6/11
Re: Probabilities not in [0,1]?
Posted: Mar 12, 2013 6:38 PM
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In article
<cef6abc9-a617-4649-9454-ca2d2e22aa90@z3g2000vbg.googlegroups.com>,
WM <mueckenh@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:

> On 10 Mrz., 19:36, "Peter Percival" <peterxperci...@hotmail.com>
> wrote:

> > Is there a theory of probability in which probabilities do not lie in the
> > real interval [0,1]?

>
> Yes.
>
> http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/0370157386901109
>
> http://finden.nationallizenzen.de/Author/Home?author=M%C3%BCckenheim%2C%20W.
>
> Regards, WM


Not when using the standard definition of probability.




***********************************************************************

WM has frequently claimed that a mapping from the set of all infinite
binary sequences to the set of paths of a CIBT is a linear mapping.
In order to show that such a mapping is a linear mapping, WM must first
show that the set of all binary sequences is a vector space and that the
set of paths of a CIBT is also a vector space, which he has not done and
apparently cannot do, and then show that his mapping satisfies the
linearity requirement that
f(ax + by) = af(x) + bf(y),
where a and b are arbitrary members of a field of scalars and x and y
are f(x) and f(y) are vectors in suitable linear spaces.

By the way, WM, what are a, b, ax, by and ax+by when x and y are binary
sequences?

If a = 1/3 and x is binary sequence, what is ax ?
and if f(x) is a path in a CIBT, what is af(x)?

Until these and a few other issues are settled, WM will still have
failed to justify his claim of a LINEAR mapping from the set (but not
yet proved to be vector space) of binary sequences to the set (but not
yet proved to be vector space) of paths ln a CIBT.

Just another of WM's many wild claims of what goes on in his WMytheology
that he cannot back up.
--





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