david petry <firstname.lastname@example.org> writes:
> On Monday, April 1, 2013 11:50:38 AM UTC-7, Jesse F. Hughes wrote: > >> I'm eager to believe you, oh, golly I am. But it feels like you're >> making it up. > > You don't really seem to have the background needed to participate > constructively in this discussion. The following is an actual quote > from a serious and well-respected mathematician; I'm not just making > it up: > > "The actual infinite is not required for the mathematics of the > physical world" (Soloman Fefermanm, in an article titled "Is Cantor > Necessary?")
This quote is not really representative of how applied mathematicians work, though.
Applied mathematicians actually use real numbers. They use the tools of real analysis and hence appear to use the theory of real numbers.
Hey, you missed a whole bunch of my questions. Let me repeat them here:
>> Of course, if the theory of real numbers is not falsifiable, it would >> seem you have a problem, right? Don't applied mathematicians (and >> scientists!) use that theory regularly? > > The real numbers can be developed in the context of falsifiability, > which should be obvious since scientists use real numbers.
Can you show me a falsifiable set of axioms for R and some indication that this is a set of axioms that applied mathematicians use (because scientists wouldn't have it any other way)?
[[NOTE: Still wondering about this, too.]]
> The real numbers that scientists use are finite precision real > numbers, which can be thought of as rational numbers together with > an error estimate. The theory of infinite precision real numbers > can be developed as the limiting case when the error goes to zero.
Oh? So real scientists do not believe in pi, but only in approximations to pi? And also, real scientists do not use, oh, sqrt(2)?
That is fascinating!
Can you show me any published account (besides your own) which indicates that scientists do what you say? Is there any scientist ever who has actually published an exhortation to always treat pi as a fiction and only use approximations to pi, because pi itself is part of the unfalsifiable pseudoscience?
[[NOTE: still wanting an answer to the above questions.]]
Your allegation that I am to ignorant to participate would sure seem to be more plausible if you had answers to these questions.
Look, David, if you don't want to discuss your own half-baked ideas with me, that's fine. You can say so. But stop pretending that you have any clear grasp of what you're saying, since you've done NOTHING to indicate what falsifiability means in a mathematical setting, aside from some tired analogy of computer-as-microscope.
Just try and answer these perfectly natural questions, please.
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