On Apr 8, 12:56 pm, WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:
> > You can remove a finite set of lines without removing the infinite > set. That is obvious. But why should it not be possible to remove all > finite lines?
I said the "collection of all lines" (this is the same as the "collection of all finite lines"). The collection of all finite lines is D and it is not possible to remove D without leaving the empty set.
Do you agree
There is no contradiction in saying that you can remove any one line (plus its predecessors) without changing the union but you cannot remove the collection of all lines without changing the union.