On 9 Apr., 21:52, Virgil <vir...@ligriv.com> wrote: > In article > <e8602ee6-855b-44cc-865e-fd054e267...@m9g2000vbc.googlegroups.com>, > William Hughes <wpihug...@gmail.com> wrote: > > > > But then my question remains: Why do you think that an infinite > > > sequence of finite unions has other P-changing properties than an > > > infinite union? > > Because an infinite sequence of such unions is still an infinite > sequence of sets whereas the infinite union is a single set. > --
The infinite sequence contains sets. These sets are union that contain more sets than any finite number. Are that infinite unions?
Do you consider a set containing numbers that are larger than every given number an infinite set?