In article <firstname.lastname@example.org>, WM <email@example.com> wrote:
> On 10 Apr., 22:53, William Hughes <wpihug...@gmail.com> wrote: > > > > > > the sum of the > > > > > FISON is S(n) = n(n+1)/2. So we construct a bijection > > > > > f(n) : n --> S(n). > > > > > Is this bijection finite or infinite? > > > > > > The bijection is an infinite set with finite elements. > > > > > And why should we not remove all these infinitely many finite > > > elements, > > > > We can remove the collection of all these elements. > > What we cannot do is remove > > the collection of all finite lines without changing > > the union of the remaining lines. > > That depends on the question whether the union of all finite lines is > an infinite line. > > > > Thus, the fact that there is no line (along with > > all its predecessors) that cannot be removed > > is not a contradiction. > > It is not a contradiction with mathematics.
How would someone, like WM, who does not know much about proper mathematics know that?
> Matheology requires: The sequence of all d_n constitutes the real > number.
> The sequence of all d_1, ..., d_n does not constitute a real number.
Which such sequences of digits, when following a radix point, does WM claim do NOT represent real numbers?