On 21 Apr., 16:03, WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote: > On 21 Apr., 12:22, netzweltler <reinhard_fisc...@arcor.de> wrote: > > > > > > > > > > > On 21 Apr., 11:07, WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote: > > > > On 21 Apr., 10:02, netzweltler <reinhard_fisc...@arcor.de> wrote: > > > > > On 20 Apr., 19:03, WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote: > > > > > > All atoms of the accessible universe and all positions they can take > > > > > belong to a finite set. > > > > > How do we prove, that the number of possible positions an atom can > > > > take along a line of 1 cm is finite? > > > > By accepting quantum mechanics and excluding theology (these > > > assumptions taken as axioms for those who believe (as an axiom) to > > > need axioms) a proof is given here:http://arxiv.org/ftp/arxiv/papers/0709/0709.4102.pdf > > > pages 2-3. > > > > Regards, WM > > > What about a position between two quanta? Should there be no decimal > > fraction for a position between two adjacent quanta along this line of > > 1 cm?- > > Quantum theory tells us, contrary to Einsteins's false beliefs, that > unmeasurable events do not exist. The electron or photon does not > simultaneously have fixed position and momentum (that would contradict > some results of interference experiments).
If non-measurable distances don't exist, don't we face another problem? Let's say, d is the smallest distance that can be measured. Distances below d don't exist. So, d/2 is a non-existing distance. Is it still valid, that d/2 + d/2 = d then? I mean, how can distance d exist, if it is composed of two non-existing distances d/2?