On 9 Mai, 21:36, Virgil <vir...@ligriv.com> wrote: > In article > <b15d6323-e22a-4963-9519-e7f9e948e...@q8g2000vbl.googlegroups.com>, > > WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote: > > > WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote: > > > For all n: f(n) = 1 , lim_n-->oo f(n) = 1 > > > This is required for correctly calculating differential quotients in > > > analysis. (Just this morning I explained that in class.) > > How is > "For all n: f(n) = 1 , lim_n-->oo f(n) = 1" > needed to calculate the differential quotient of f(x) = e^x at x = pi?
It is necessary to calculate the differential quotient of functions like f(x) = ax + b. > > It can ONLY be of any use in correctly calculating differential > quotients in the rare cases in which the difference quotients at a point > are all equal regardless of the differences in x.
So it is. But even these "rare cases" belong to mathematics and have to be solved correctly. > > I.e., when the delta-y over delta-x ratio is constant, as in linear > functions. > > So apparently WM never gets anywhere beyond the derivatives of linear > functions.
That is not an admissible conclussion. But it was to be expected from a logician like you or like Herr Bader.