
Does this imply that lim x > oo f'(x) = 0?
Posted:
May 23, 2013 11:11 AM


Suppose f:[0, oo) > R is increasing, differentiable and has a finite limit as x > oo. Then, must we have lim x > oo f'(x) = 0? I guess not, but couldn't find a counter example.
Thank you

