
Re: Does this imply that lim x > oo f'(x) = 0?
Posted:
May 24, 2013 10:31 PM


If inf{f'(x)  x > = 0} > 0, then f(x) > oo even if f' doesn't have a limit at oo. But if this infimum is 0, then f can have a finite limit at oo. Since f is increasing, the infimum is always >= 0. This can be seen by MVT.
Artur

