On 01/06/2013 7:21 AM, Julio Di Egidio wrote: > "fom" <fomJUNK@nyms.net> wrote in message > news:iNOdna24I74eTjTMnZ2dnUVZ_rSdnZ2d@giganews.com... >> On 5/31/2013 10:36 AM, Julio Di Egidio wrote: >>> "fom" <fomJUNK@nyms.net> wrote in message >>> news:UY-dnUnFksIIUDrMnZ2dnUVZ_g-dnZ2d@giganews.com... >>>> On 5/30/2013 11:20 AM, Julio Di Egidio wrote: >>> <snipped> >>> >>>> is there a criterion >>>> for deciding whether either of the complete connectives should >>>> be viewed as the canonical complete connective? That is, is >>>> there an asymmetry in the dyslexia we call truth-functional >>>> logic? >>> >>> Why should there be a canonical one? >> >> After one long answer... a simpler observation. >> >> When mathematicians are confronted with a multiplicity >> of equivalent forms, they often seek "a principal branch". > > Yes, mathematicians. But I don't need to be reminded what a good > mathematician or a good professional would do, and, by the way,
> I am > only marginally interested in history, my focus is purely theoretical.
I'm of the same position. History and philosophy can only go so far: there are concrete facts and issues originated from accepted definitions that we have to confront with. Bringing up historical, philosophical contexts virtually all the time isn't going to be productive.
> That said, the point in question was how could there be a privileged > starting point when we are talking about a system whose *essential* > nature is the self-referentiality / the circularity. > >> The relationship of that view to general equivalence seems >> to be related to failures of the distributive laws in certain >> structures. > > There, the point in question was: how could you (or anybody) justify > calling that "logic"?
Agree. It seems that they (Zuhair, Peter, fom) _called_ a lot of things "logic", up to the point that even if one _specifically stipulates_ one is talking about _FOL_ logical symbols, they'd still call 'e' a logical symbol.
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