On Sun, 23 Jun 2013 09:33:48 -0700 (PDT), email@example.com wrote:
>On Sunday, 23 June 2013 18:06:06 UTC+2, dull...@sprynet.com wrote: > > >> Oh! You say that every pair of irrationals "must" be distinguished by a rational between them. You say we need to do this in order to define the standard order on the reals. And you agree that there is no problem defining the standard order on the reals. > >> So you must agree that any two reals _can_ be distingushed by a rational between them. > >Otherwise they cannot be proven to be different. > >> In particular, any two reals _can_ be distingushed. > >If the reals can be identified and are not the same, then they can be distinguished by a rational. > >> Now what the heck are you talking about when you say there's no well-order on the reals because we cannot distinguish them? > >I say there could not be a well-order on *uncountably many reals*, because most of them could not be identified by a finite amount of bits.
I know you say that! WHY is it not also correct to say there cannot be an _order_ on uncountably many reals, because "most of them could not be identified by finitely many bits"?
You have to explain what the difference is. Or admit that you can't.