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Re: Can L(<) be the language of the naturals?
Posted:
Sep 6, 2013 11:16 AM
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On 09/06/2013 01:17 AM, Albrecht wrote: > On Monday, September 2, 2013 8:19:41 AM UTC+2, Albrecht wrote: >> Am Montag, 2. September 2013 05:11:09 UTC+2 schrieb Virgil: >>> In article <l0023u$jol$1@news.albasani.net>, >>> Peter Percival <peterxpercival@hotmail.com> wrote:
>> Your so called "natural numbers" are not the natural numbers of 99% of men. Why calling it "natural numbers" in spite of that fact? >> >> >> >> The natural numbers of normal people starts with an object or entity or sign and increases in succesive adding further objects or entities or signs step by step. >> >> >> >> E.g.: >> >>
Okay, you start without any strokes. A blank piece of paper, an empty file, a clean white-board.
>>
Then you add a stroke and get a single stroke:
>> I
Then you add a stroke and get two strokes:
>> II
This all makes perfect sense to me.
-- Michael F. Stemper Indians scattered on dawn's highway bleeding; Ghosts crowd the young child's fragile eggshell mind.
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