In <J_OdnUu47ZSo2KfPnZ2dnUVZ_sadnZ2d@giganews.com>, on 09/18/2013 at 07:28 PM, fom <fomJUNK@nyms.net> said:
>And, wouldn't the class abstract that leads >to Russell's paradox have been considered >a definition at one point in time?
Correct so far.
>How is it no longer a definition?
How is cheese no longer an omnivore? Nobody claimed that there wasn't a contradiction; they claimed that the contradiction did not arise from a definition. Russel's paradox is inherent in his axiom scheme,
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