On Friday, November 1, 2013 8:29:52 PM UTC-7, Bart Goddard wrote: > Dan Christensen <Dan_Christensen@sympatico.ca> wrote in > > news:firstname.lastname@example.org: > > > > > > > As I have said repeatedly, it is assumed to be a natural number, but > > > no specific value is assigned to it. So, yes, that makes it > > > "undefined." What is your point, Barty? > > > > The point, as I've said repeatedly, is that your > > "theorem" assumes that it has a value. If it's not > > defined, then it has no value (or meaning.) Contradiction. > > 0^1 is defined in terms of 0^0. So now, 0^1 is > > undefined. 0^2 is defined in terms of 0^1, so > > 0^2 is now undefined. Etc. So, by induction, > > you haven't defined 0^(anything). We, in the business, > > call this "logic."