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Topic: Why don't texts give a stronger version of Zorn's lemma?
Replies: 9   Last Post: Nov 22, 2013 6:12 AM

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James Waldby

Posts: 308
Registered: 1/27/11
Re: Why don't texts give a stronger version of Zorn's lemma?
Posted: Nov 20, 2013 11:57 AM
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On Wed, 20 Nov 2013 12:28:17 +0000, Peter Percival wrote:
> William Elliot wrote:
>> How can it be stronger? They're both equivalent.
>
> I know even less about English than I know about maths, but it seems to
> me that


> They're both equivalent.

> is ungrammatical. I think it should be

> They're equivalent to each other.

> or

> They're both equivalent to <some third thing>.

No, "They're both equivalent" isn't ungrammatical. Some may see it as
slightly awkward or pleonastic but I think most native speakers will,
without remark, take it as meaning "They're equivalent" (which is what I'd
have written if it were so). In appropriate context, "They're equivalent"
has the same meaning but is less verbose than "They're equivalent to each
other".

> I wouldn't mention it were it not for the fact that William Elliot is
> wont to make adverse comments about the English of others.
>
> (Better sprinkle a few smilies :-) :-) :-).)


--
jiw



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