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Topic: Why don't texts give a stronger version of Zorn's lemma?
Replies: 9   Last Post: Nov 22, 2013 6:12 AM

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Peter Percival

Posts: 1,217
Registered: 10/25/10
Re: Why don't texts give a stronger version of Zorn's lemma?
Posted: Nov 20, 2013 12:06 PM
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James Waldby wrote:
> On Wed, 20 Nov 2013 12:28:17 +0000, Peter Percival wrote:
>> William Elliot wrote:
>>> How can it be stronger? They're both equivalent.
>>
>> I know even less about English than I know about maths, but it seems to
>> me that

>
>> They're both equivalent.
>
>> is ungrammatical. I think it should be
>
>> They're equivalent to each other.
>
>> or
>
>> They're both equivalent to <some third thing>.
>
> No, "They're both equivalent" isn't ungrammatical. Some may see it as
> slightly awkward or pleonastic but I think most native speakers will,
> without remark, take it as meaning "They're equivalent" (which is what I'd
> have written if it were so). In appropriate context, "They're equivalent"
> has the same meaning but is less verbose than "They're equivalent to each
> other".


I'm happy with 'they're equivalent'; it's 'they're *both* equivalent'
that reads oddly to me. (But I may be mad.)

>> I wouldn't mention it were it not for the fact that William Elliot is
>> wont to make adverse comments about the English of others.
>>
>> (Better sprinkle a few smilies :-) :-) :-) .)

>


--
Madam Life's a piece in bloom,
Death goes dogging everywhere:
She's the tenant of the room,
He's the ruffian on the stair.



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